Closed trosel closed 1 year ago
I believe it is still phonemically /t/. The change you speak about occurs in US and Australian English but not in some other varieties (e.g. RP). It is not phonemically significant, i.e. it does not change the meaning, so both sounds in US and Australian English are represented by đ.
Wouldnât it be equally as phonemically significant as the past tense d changing to t? Or the plural s changing to z?
It's a little different. The past tense and plural sound changes are pretty universal across all varieties of English. And the distinctions with the past tense and plural can be phonemically important, e.g the difference between 'canned' and 'cant', 'hence' and 'hens', etc.
It would be nice if https://www.shavian.info/spelling/ included information on T's that become D in various situations.
Water Italy (vs Italian)
If the T is a flap-t, it is still written with a T letter in Shavian?