Open bejaeger opened 1 year ago
I am wondering why we don't use gaussian sample but rather sample from the interval [0, 1) when sampling from the latents [1]. Is there a particular theoretical advantage? Or did this prove more stable empirically?
[1] https://github.com/jaywalnut310/vits/blob/2e561ba58618d021b5b8323d3765880f7e0ecfdb/models.py#L520
https://github.com/jaywalnut310/vits/blob/2e561ba58618d021b5b8323d3765880f7e0ecfdb/models.py#L520
I am wondering why we don't use gaussian sample but rather sample from the interval [0, 1) when sampling from the latents [1]. Is there a particular theoretical advantage? Or did this prove more stable empirically?
[1]
https://github.com/jaywalnut310/vits/blob/2e561ba58618d021b5b8323d3765880f7e0ecfdb/models.py#L520