jracle85
commented
5 months ago Hello,
We are doing this following the standard practice in the field. The reason for it is that DRA is an invariant chain with virtually a single allele for the whole population. On contrary DPA and DQA chains are variable and heterodimers formed by a given DPB and different DPA won't present exactly the same peptides; the information about DPA is therefore important (and similarly for DQ).
There is thus no option of only giving DPB as an allele. Note however that DPA1*01:03 (or DPA1_01_03 in our notation) is much more frequent in the population. If you don't know DPA, taking this allele as a proxy could thus be a decent approximation. For DQ the situation is more complex with no dominant allele (but some linkage disequilibrium could help imputing it from the rest of the haplotypes).
Best regards,
Julien
tianlt
Hello,
May I ask why allele list DRB is single but DPA/DPB or DQA/DQB are in pair? And if there is any option to input only DPB instead of the pair type for prediction?
Thank you very much