Open hben2 opened 4 months ago
Hi, and thanks for your question. The Proxy B uses different IP addresses/ports on the side visible to Proxy A and the side visible to the website. The website-side IP/port is not visible to the Proxy A, precisely to prevent the correlation you describe.
Is it correct to assume that the second proxy uses some form of NATing to assign end-user IP addresses different from the actual IP of the second proxy itself (ie the one that the first proxy would see and use to connect to it)?
If so, does the first proxy ever have visibility into the IP address assigned to a user on any granular connection/session basis?
Reason for asking is it seems the first proxy knowing both the user's original IP address and the one they end up assigned to seems like a vector for correlation by first proxy operators (Google) without collusion.
Thanks.