This is something that I've wanted to discuss for a while now but never really got around to.
The conventional physical normalisation of a PS correlator is:
A^2 * ( exp(-E_pst) + exp(-E_ps(T-t)) = G_ps^2 / (2 E_ps) * ( exp(-E_pst) + exp(-E_ps(T-t))
such that
G_ps = sqrt( 2 * E_ps ) * A
where G_ps is the bare matrix element of the PS current between a pion state and the vacuum.
This comes from the fact that for infinite T, we would simply have
G_ps^2 / (2 E_ps) * exp(-E_pst)
and the same relationship between A and the matrix element. However, in matrixfit (and in hadron in general) a factor of 0.5 is added to the model, such that
0.5 * A^2 * ( exp(-E_pst) + exp(-E_ps(T-t)) = G_ps^2 / (2 E_ps) * ( exp(-E_pst) + exp(-E_ps(T-t))
and then
G_ps = sqrt( E_ps ) * A
Of course there's nothing wrong with this as long as one keeps track of that factor of 0.5, but I was wondering what the reason was for having it around in the first place.
This is something that I've wanted to discuss for a while now but never really got around to.
The conventional physical normalisation of a PS correlator is:
where
G_ps
is the bare matrix element of the PS current between a pion state and the vacuum.This comes from the fact that for infinite
T
, we would simply haveand the same relationship between
A
and the matrix element. However, in matrixfit (and in hadron in general) a factor of0.5
is added to the model, such thatOf course there's nothing wrong with this as long as one keeps track of that factor of
0.5
, but I was wondering what the reason was for having it around in the first place.