Closed liun-online closed 4 years ago
Hi, @liun-online,
Thanks for your kind word. (1) I(y; x) >= I(y; v1, v2), as v1, v2 are functions of x, so we have this by data processing inequality; (2) I(y; v1, v2) >= I(y; v1) = I(y; x), as assumption. So it's equal.
Let me know if I am wrong or if you have further questions. I will close it by now but feel free to reopen.
thanks your paper, and I think it's a fundamental job! But, I'm not clear that why I(y; x) = I(y; v1, v2) as given in proof in Proposition A.1. Could you please show me the reliable reason for it? Maybe, it's a naive question. I'm hope for your reply! Best wishes!