Observed data on HPV prevalence (McDonald, 2014) suggests that females aged 17-19 have higher prevalence than females aged 20-24. Is this a sampling issue (fewer women in the 17-19 age group are sexually active and those coming to clinics are more likely to be infected), or due to an issue with the model structure? For example, do we make assumptions about HIV/HPV transmission and sexual behavior that make it difficult to fit both HIV and HPV prevalence for this age group?
Observed data on HPV prevalence (McDonald, 2014) suggests that females aged 17-19 have higher prevalence than females aged 20-24. Is this a sampling issue (fewer women in the 17-19 age group are sexually active and those coming to clinics are more likely to be infected), or due to an issue with the model structure? For example, do we make assumptions about HIV/HPV transmission and sexual behavior that make it difficult to fit both HIV and HPV prevalence for this age group?