Open antico5 opened 5 months ago
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We're specifically anonymizing the consent response/change and that's why we're using a hardcoded user ID, right? That's just to gauge how many people are responding Y/N?
If the data reported is anonymous anyway, wouldn't we want to already know who changed the consent? We can sort of already understand who agreed (by inspecting the machine ID); this just prevents us from seeing when some machine ID stopped consenting (which is fine but wanted to bring it up).
Otherwise, looks good to me!
My understanding is that we want to anonymize this particular response because if the user answers no
, we don't want to store their machine ID. Also for analytics purposes we only care about the number of users and not about what a specific user responded.
This PR introduces two events sent to Google Analytics, without any client information, for when the user first responds to the "enable telemetry" popup, and any subsequent change to the setting via UI.