Right now I've proven that int is equivalent to biinv-int, which is generated by a point and a bi-invertible endomap (i.e., a map with a left and right inverse). This is easier than proving int is equivalent to the HIT generated by a point and a half-adjoint equivalence (the way it is typically presented), because biinv-int only has 0- and 1-dimensional generators.
However, I suspect it will be straightforward to show that biinv is equivalent to the half-adjoint version just using the standard theorems that the different definitions of equivalence are interchangeable. ETA: Maybe not.
Right now I've proven that
int
is equivalent tobiinv-int
, which is generated by a point and a bi-invertible endomap (i.e., a map with a left and right inverse). This is easier than provingint
is equivalent to the HIT generated by a point and a half-adjoint equivalence (the way it is typically presented), becausebiinv-int
only has 0- and 1-dimensional generators.However, I suspect it will be straightforward to show that
biinv
is equivalent to the half-adjoint version just using the standard theorems that the different definitions of equivalence are interchangeable. ETA: Maybe not.