Thanks for your nice work. I have a question and have difficulty understanding it, that is, why not directly use $Emb(W)$ as $X_0$, instead, $X_0 = Emb(W)+ N(0, \sigma_0 I)$ in the paper. Looking forward to your reply, thanks!
FYI, this was discussed in openreivew. $\sigma_0$ is set to 0.0001 and it becomes spiky Gaussian, and it was empirical choice according to the authors.
Thanks for your nice work. I have a question and have difficulty understanding it, that is, why not directly use $Emb(W)$ as $X_0$, instead, $X_0 = Emb(W)+ N(0, \sigma_0 I)$ in the paper. Looking forward to your reply, thanks!