Why is coinflip likelihood a Bernoulli in Chapter 2 when it was a Binomial in Chapter 1?

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Why is the distribution for the likelihood of the coin flip example in Chapter 2 a Bernoulli when it was a Binomial distribution in the same coinflip example in Chapter 1? To me a Binomial seems more intuitive since the coin flip is preformed multiple times (4 trials in the example). Clarity on this becomes even more relevant when performing Exercise nbr 1 of Chapter 2 which requires comparing the coin flip models between chapters 1 and 2.

[aloctavodia]

The Bernoulli distribution is a special case of the Binomial when n=1

[ezDataCode]

Thank you.