Closed mikessut closed 1 year ago
Of course I find a pretty good answer almost immediately after posting!
I think this answers it, correct?
https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/63939/egarch1-1-mean
That is the right reason. It makes the absolute value shock have mean 0. The other shock is already mean 0.
Thanks!
I'm not sure where to ask this question. Apologies if this is the wrong forum.
I'm trying to understand why there is a sqrt(2 / pi) factor in the EGARCH model.
I've been trying to dig through some references on EGARCH to understand it better. The brief discussion on Wikipedia doesn't show this factor nor is there a factor in this reference "Conditional Heteroskedasticity in Asset Returns: A New Approach".
https://github.com/bashtage/arch/blob/6e3325635fc0fd4cb6b7c4a305f610fc9b80a265/arch/univariate/volatility.py#L2504