Closed cjing1 closed 1 year ago
This may be a violation of the no-anticipation assumption. You may allow for 2 periods of anticipation if you wish.
Without knowing more about the details, it is hard to say something concrete. So take it with a grain of salt.
On Tue, Sep 27, 2022 at 20:56 ChenJ @.***> wrote:
Thank you again for the great package. I have another question regarding the interpretation of the 'average effect by the length of exposure' figure. I learned that we could check if the confidence intervals cover 0 in all pre-treatment periods to test the parallel assumption.
However, in my case, the time unit -1 does not cover 0, but all other pre-trt periods do.
[image: image] https://user-images.githubusercontent.com/31779053/192667956-d8306d14-f07d-4460-bebf-35cb928bdae0.png
I know that -1 corresponds to the time period before groups first participate in the treatment. But I am not sure how to interpret the result since it is "before" exposure. Is this an indicator of violation of parallel trend? If so, is there a way to solve it? Maybe matching on trt-control?
Thank you in advance for any help or suggestions.
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Thank you Prof. Sant'Anna for such quick responses. I am studying the effect of news coverage on public opinion. So I think you are right about the anticipation issue. This is my first time dealing with it, sorry if my question is basic. May I ask how to allow for 2 periods of anticipation? Should I extend the beginning of treatment to a one-time unit before?
Thank you so much for your help.
The att_gt
function has an anticipation
argument which you can use to allow for anticipation directly.
Thank you again for the great package. I have another question regarding the interpretation of the 'average effect by the length of exposure' figure. I learned that we could check if the confidence intervals cover 0 in all pre-treatment periods to test the parallel assumption.
However, in my case, the time unit -1 does not cover 0, but all other pre-trt periods do.
I know that -1 corresponds to the time period before groups first participate in the treatment. But I am not sure how to interpret the result since it is "before" exposure. Is this an indicator of violation of parallel trend? If so, is there a way to solve it? Maybe matching on trt-control?
Thank you in advance for any help or suggestions.