Open bdenckla opened 5 months ago
Right now I treat all cases of segol-yod as if yod were a mater lectionis, i.e. I give them all just the segol sound (transliteration e rather than ey).
So, the question is: should I be making some cases of segol-yod "ey", leaving only the cases mentioned above by Jacobson as simply "e"?
BTW the only syllable I currently have ending in "ey" is shey-shal-lem-!lakh (shey-shal-lem-LAKH) for שֶׁיְשַׁלֶּם־לָ֑ךְ in Psalm 137:8.
A challenging case is כׇּל־גֶּיא֙ in Isaiah 40:4, currently transliterated kol-!ge (kol-GE).
Challenging, because it combines the segol-yod question with the final alef question.
The final alef question being, is this a glottal stop or an ML?
The current transliteration kol-!ge (kol-GE) treats both the yod and the alef as matres lectionis.
Outside of those EY-kha and EY-ha cases Jacobson mentions, what does that leave us, as far as other cases of segol-yod? (Other than that one weird word כׇּל־גֶּיא֙ mentioned above)?
It leaves us with 135 cases of segol-yod followed by various "flavors" of nun-qamats:
So, the question is: should these cases, all currently having just 'e' for segol-yod, be changed to have 'ey'?
One extraordinary segol-yod word is וְאַתִׄיקֶ֛יהָא in Ezekiel 41:15, currently transliterated as v^-'at-tI-!ke-ha (ve-’at-tí-KE-ha).
(Jacobson page 277.)