Closed anglixue closed 1 year ago
Hi Angli,
thanks for reaching out. I think the confusion stems from the definition of the quasi-likelihood dispersion estimates. They are defined as: $disp{ql} = (1 + \mu * disp{mle}) / (1 + \mu * disp{trend})$. The motivation for this equation is simply equating the expression of the variance for the two models: $var = \mu + disp{mle} \mu^2$ and $var = disp{ql} (\mu + disp{trend} \mu^2)$
Thus I am not surprised that the fit$overdispersion_shrinkage_list$ql_disp_trend
vary around 1. For more information on the idea of the quasi-Negative binomial model and why shrinkage is easier there take a look at Lund et al. (2012) and the help page for ?overdispersion_shrinkage
.
Best, Constantin
Hi, I am trying to understand the difference between MLE and quasi-MLE results. So I did a simple simulation:
1000 genes x 500 cells, every gene has the same mean expression = 3 and dispersion = 5
However, when I checked the estimate from four methods: moment, MLE, ql_mle, ql_mle_shruken, I found that MOE and MLE provide relatively accurate estimate but the ql_mle (quasi-likelihood dispersion estimates based on the dispersion trend) and ql_mle_shruken (shrunken quasi-likelihood dispersion estimates) are always close to 1 (see plot below).
Then I further check the fit results
I found the difference came from the
and
I wonder if you have any ideas why the ql_disp_trend isn't consistent with the simulated parameter (theta = 5)? Thanks very much for your help!