I believe there are some errors in the solution of this problem:
b. From definition of FWER
The family-wise error rate (FWER) generalizes this notion to the setting of m null hypotheses, H01, . . . , H0m, and is defined as the probability of making at least one Type I error.
I believe answer should be $1-(1-\alpha)^m$ and $ma$ should be answer of (a)
d. In solution it is stated that
we will always have 1 false positive (type 1 error)
This is not true, for example let first p-value be 0.2 then second p-value will be 0.8, since both are larger than 0.05 neither is rejected
I believe there are some errors in the solution of this problem:
b. From definition of FWER
I believe answer should be $1-(1-\alpha)^m$ and $ma$ should be answer of (a)
d. In solution it is stated that
This is not true, for example let first p-value be 0.2 then second p-value will be 0.8, since both are larger than 0.05 neither is rejected
I hope I am not mistaken, thank you