You state that "In contrast to the prior distribution, we set the mean to \mu=0.".
Would this be clearer if it stated "In contrast to the prior distribution where we set the mean to \mu=0, the resulting distribution will most likely have a non-zero mean \mu’ \neq 0"?
Or is there something I'm missing and not understanding correctly?
Hi,
You state that "In contrast to the prior distribution, we set the mean to \mu=0.".
Would this be clearer if it stated "In contrast to the prior distribution where we set the mean to \mu=0, the resulting distribution will most likely have a non-zero mean \mu’ \neq 0"?
Or is there something I'm missing and not understanding correctly?