Closed khinsen closed 3 years ago
This is indeed not phrased optimally. It's not just because the components are orthogonal, but because they are orthogonal eigenvectors of the covariance matrix. Here's a nice little proof.
The scores are uncorrelated irrespective of the the distribution of $X$ though. For Gaussian $X$ that just means they're also independent.
So maybe just:
The scores are uncorrelated by construction and we may treat them as independent.
?
You are right, and your proposal looks good. Let me just nitpick a bit: "we may treat them as independent" makes some hidden assumption about the context you are working in. How about "we treat them as independent", which is merely a statement of what you do?
Agreed!
Describe the bug
The documentation page on fPCA says:
The claim that "because the principal components $v_1, \dots, v_K$ are orthogonal, the scores are necessarily uncorrelated" looks wrong to me. These scores are projections of the $X_i$ onto the elements of an orthonormal basis. That doesn't make them uncorrelated. There are lots of orthonormal bases one can project on, and for most of them the projections are not uncorrelated. You need some property of the distribution of $X$ to derive a zero correlation, for example a Gaussian distribution, for which the PCA basis yields approximately uncorrelated projections.