Open daskandalis opened 4 years ago
Apologies for the years-long delay in responding to this. I agree this isn't a great metric, nor is it explained anywhere -- this was simply a port of the original summary statistics that the original PhyloPars web portal reported. I think it would make much more sense to look at this on a trait-by-trait basis calculated as phylo_var / (pheno_var + phylo_var). I'm going to keep this issue open so when Rphylopars gets a major update (hypothetically in the near future) I can remember to update this and add some documentation clarifying what it means. In any case, thanks for pointing out the single-trait issue! The latest CRAN version resolves that issue at least.
What is the reason for calculating the estimated percentage of variance explained by the phylogeny is provided as 100x(1 - phenotypic_variance/raw_variance), where raw_variance is the variance of all observations for a given trait across species?
This result gives, e.g., 80% of the variance in a trait explained by a star phylogeny. But a star phylogeny does not explain any variance in a trait. It seems that the calculation is the unexplained variance, of which the phylogenetic variance is only one part (and is possibly none).
And an actual issue, phylogenetic variance fails with a single trait:
EDIT: Hit ctrl+enter and posted this sooner than I had time to think all the way through. Oh well.