Open evanberkowitz opened 9 months ago
yes this seems very reasonable
I guess we should think carefully about the powers of volume and if/where they are needed.
At $\Delta x=0$ Action_Action
is more like ActionDensitySquared
. The action density variance comes from averaging over $\Delta x$, so that both x and y in $\langle S_x S_y \rangle$ are averaged.
Hmm, why wouldn't Action_Action at \Delta_x = 0 be <S^2> - ^2, which is the variance of S? Why would the variance come from averaging over x and y in Action_Action?
I think Action_Action
is really ActionDensity_ActionDensity
. If we really had the full volume^2 (all-to-all) correlator then summing over the two positions would sum the densities and give S^2. So to go down to S^2/Λ^2, divide by the volume two times.
But the Action_Action
is already volume averaged on one location. Then so we should sum one coordinate and then divide by Λ; ie average over coordinates.
But it's certainly possible I missed some factor somewhere!
If Action_Action really is two densities then evaluated at Δx=0 gives the density squared.
We have the
Action_Action
two-point function which is $(-\kappa \partial_{\kappax})(-\kappa \partial{\kappa_y}) \log Z$ as a function of $\Delta x = x-y$, and the implementation properly subtracts the quantum-disconnected piece.ActionSusceptibility
?ActionDensityVariance
(by analogy withInternalEnergyDensityVariance
#85)?