As far as I understand, the goal of mean and variance term used in this paper is to be gt_box (x_off, y_off, box_width, box_height) and zeros, since gt has direct delta fucntion with mean = gt_box and var = 0.
In this respect, directly using gaussian pdf as above would have infinite loss.
Hello, Thank you for sharing interesting research
I'm wondering why gaussian pdf is directly used to formulate labeled regression loss as a cross-entropy loss. Is this generally used?
and gaussian_dist_pdf
As far as I understand, the goal of mean and variance term used in this paper is to be gt_box (x_off, y_off, box_width, box_height) and zeros, since gt has direct delta fucntion with mean = gt_box and var = 0. In this respect, directly using gaussian pdf as above would have infinite loss.
p.s/ How did you get sigma_constant = 0.3??
Thanks in advance Joo Young Jang