Open ivannp opened 9 years ago
Thanks for the report. I certainly agree that the standard calculation with n-1
observations looks odd... and the mean0
calculation was based on that, which is probably why the n-2
is there (subtract one more observation).
I used this site when coding these volatility functions.
Hmm, looks like the site has the equation in this manner, since N is the number of CLOSING observations. For N closes, we have N-1 returns and so on. I guess that's one approach, but is it consistent for the other estimators (i.e. Yang-Zhang)? There I think we take N returns (or ratios).
see
?var
which says:
"The denominator n - 1 is used which gives an unbiased estimator of the (co)variance for i.i.d. observations."
Obviously, this applies to volatility as well as variance.
On 04/27/2015 10:41 PM, Ivan Popivanov wrote:
Hmm, looks like the site has the equation in this manner, since N is the number of CLOSING observations. For N closes, we have N-1 returns and so on. I guess that's one approach, but is it consistent for the other estimators (i.e. Yang-Zhang)? There I think we take N returns (or ratios).
— Reply to this email directly or view it on GitHub https://github.com/joshuaulrich/TTR/issues/13#issuecomment-96899920.
Brian G. Peterson http://braverock.com/brian/ Ph: 773-459-4973 IM: bgpbraverock
runSD(r, n-1)
- why do we compute the SD usingn-1
bars? runSD already computes the SD of the mean (the default for the "sample" parameter isTRUE
). I suspect that the formula in themean0=TRUE
case has similar issue - then-2
looks suspicious.