Closed simonschoe closed 5 months ago
Totally normal for R^2 to be negative in IV/2SLS:
"R2 really has no statistical meaning in the context of 2SLS/IV."
Source: https://www.stata.com/support/faqs/statistics/two-stage-least-squares/
For your second question, that is not how IV works. You use all instruments to instrument for all Xs :-)
Hello! Indeed, as Kyle mentions, R2s in IV regressions don't make sense. I may drop it completely TBH because it creates confusion. Thanks for the words :-)
Hi there,
I am currently observing an odd result in my analysis which I cannot quite figure out. That is, the second stage in an IV setup yielding negative values for R^2. This occurs in partciular if I perform splits before fitting.
Reprex (here it only occurs within one subsample, in my data this behaviour is consistent across all splits):
In addition, the IV formula extensions
x_endo_1 + x_endo_2 ~ x_inst_1 + x_inst_2
implies that both instruments are used for both endogenous covariates. Is it possible to use the first instrument only for the first endogenous regressor (vice versa for the second)?Thanks for your great work with the package!