Closed JacksonRudd closed 2 years ago
I agree An example would be where the group T=0 reacts more strongly on the treatment than group T=1. So the differences wouldn't be equal, even though thenon bias equation still holds. I think you need a stronger assumptions (maybe on the distribution and not just the expected value).
You are right. Beyond E[Y0 | T=0] = E[Y0 | T=1]
, you also need E[Y1 | T=0] = E[Y1 | T=1]
. Both are satisfied under randomization, but this isn't clearly state in the chapter. Thanks!
There is an issue on chapter 01, in the following paragraph """ Not only that, but E(Y1-Y0 | T=1) = E(Y1-Y0 | T=0), simply because the treated and untreated are exchangeable. Hence, in this case, the difference in means BECOMES the causal effect: """ At this point we only know that E(Y0|T=1) = E(Y0|T=0). aka we know there is no bais.
Therefore we still need to prove that E(Y1| T=1) = E(Y1 | T=0) to show that E(Y1-Y0 | T=1) = E(Y1-Y0 | T=0). Maybe this is obvious and I'm missing something, but I think the section would be improved by proving this. I am somewhat doubtful this is true.