Open kubbydd opened 6 years ago
Not sure about the question. But see the explicit formula database at
http://hyperelliptic.org/EFD/g1p/auto-shortw.html
Specifically http://hyperelliptic.org/EFD/g1p/auto-shortw-jacobian-0.html#doubling-dbl-2009-l
And http://hyperelliptic.org/EFD/g1p/auto-shortw-jacobian-0.html#doubling-mdbl-2007-bl
When the point is normalized, z=1
Mike
On Sun 11 Feb 2018 at 07:40, kubbydd notifications@github.com wrote:
In this method ,if Q == P ,mr_mip->Asize = 0,and if P->marker = MR_EPOINT_NORMALIZED,than P->z = 2P->y,or P->z = 2P->zP->y.Why P->z = 2P->y when the P->z is zero?
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In this method ,if Q == P ,mr_mip->Asize = 0,and if P->marker = MR_EPOINT_NORMALIZED,than P->z = 2P->y,or P->z = 2P->zP->y.Why P->z = 2P->y when the P->z is zero?