Open Luo-Chang opened 3 years ago
For me, the authors required that the means of both variables be 0 since the inner product is a bilinear, symmetric and positive definite form (as well as the covariance) that takes exactly two arguments, and therefore setting the means to 0 makes that there is no other two arguments (and therefore the arguments are exactly two: X, Y).
In Page 196, equation (6.59), where the definition of inner product of random variables are given, the text states that 'if we define
<X, Y>:= Cov [x,y]
for zero mean random variables X and Y, we obtain an inner product'.
I was so confused that why zero mean is needed here? Since we define inner product as Covariance, it already removes the effects of mean.
Could you please add some extra explanations like one or two sentences for this?
I did a lot Google search but seems there is no related websites found.
Thanks!