Closed pfatheddin closed 3 months ago
I'm not sure I follow your point. As written it's correct. Are you wanting to make the question less inclusive?
no it is just a small grammar error. It says a person then "them".
It is grammatically correct as written. The dictionary says them “refers to a person whose gender need not be specified”.
Oh. I have never seen that. Interesting to know. Thanks.
Fixed a typo. In the example it says someone then refers to him/her as them. Pg. 165:
Him/her not them.