As far as I understand, there should be n! of them to produce all the permutations.
AFAIK, according to the music theory, there only exists the invariant that the notes in chords shouldn't contain spaces more than one octave and this reduces the number of inversions of a given chord starting for a given octave exactly n!
Is that correct that there are only
n
inversions generated wheren
is the number of notes in the chord?https://github.com/ozankasikci/rust-music-theory/blob/2e09fa3c2574fd41a41650e4f95023ac9f7e3b20/src/chord/chord.rs#L191
As far as I understand, there should be
n!
of them to produce all the permutations.AFAIK, according to the music theory, there only exists the invariant that the notes in chords shouldn't contain spaces more than one octave and this reduces the number of inversions of a given chord starting for a given octave exactly
n!