Hi guys!
First of all Thank you for the great tutorial.
I am doing my PhD on NFTs and Intellecual Property/Contract Law.
When Redeeming a voucher on-chain.
In the example code the NFT is first assigned to the signee (creator of the NFT Collection)
/ first assign the token to the signer, to establish provenance on-chain
and then directly transfered to the redeemer.
// transfer the token to the redeemer
My question is:
You don't have to do that, do you?
For example the BYAC did not do that. I was looking at the transfer history on OpenSea and the Apes all have been minted to different adresses.
If they would have followed the procedure described above, the would have all be minted to the same adress (BYAC owner) and then transfered to different accounts. Did I get that right?
Thank you very much in advance for helping a stupid lawyer :-D
Hi guys! First of all Thank you for the great tutorial. I am doing my PhD on NFTs and Intellecual Property/Contract Law.
When Redeeming a voucher on-chain. In the example code the NFT is first assigned to the signee (creator of the NFT Collection) / first assign the token to the signer, to establish provenance on-chain and then directly transfered to the redeemer. // transfer the token to the redeemer
My question is: You don't have to do that, do you? For example the BYAC did not do that. I was looking at the transfer history on OpenSea and the Apes all have been minted to different adresses. If they would have followed the procedure described above, the would have all be minted to the same adress (BYAC owner) and then transfered to different accounts. Did I get that right?
Thank you very much in advance for helping a stupid lawyer :-D