Closed sergey-a-berezin closed 1 year ago
Since sequences X[i]
will be normalized to mean = 0 and sigma = 1, auto-correlation simply accumulates
sum(X[i] * X[i+shift])
, and the final correlation is that divided by the total number of samples.
Add a writeup for the experiment. Apparently, there is some hint on a slight negative correlation at "shift=1", but it's within the noise. This is something to test later and estimating if it can be exploited.
However, checking for auto-correlation within individual stocks and split by time intervals (4 intervals by 6 years), the pattern seems to be random. It's quite possible that with very large numbers correlation becomes negative (the price tends to move back), but it requires very large numbers to average out.
This experiment is a general study of auto-correlation of log-profit series. Effectively, it computes one thing:
[1..n]
. There is obviously no need to compute it for 0 (correlation will be 1), and also no need to distinguish positive and negative shift, since they are symmetric.