Closed Volune closed 7 years ago
value::a.b.call(0)
-> a.b.call.call(value, 0)
::a.b.call
-> a.b.call.bind(a.b)
why should it be syntax error?
If there are no errors or unexpected/tricky behavior with .bind
/.call
, I'm closing.
I preferred to ask for nothing rather than miss a potential problem.
At first I was trying to imagine the benefits of mixing
.call
/.bind
with the "pipeline operator" I've seen in other issues (the one that use the left expression as first argument in the right call expression), i.e. simulate a this-pipeline operator with a first-arg-pipeline operator.That make me wonder what would happen if we mix
.call
/.bind
with the currently specified bind operator:value::a.b.c(0)
givesa.b.c.call(value, 0)
~~ somehowvalue.c(0)
with thec
froma.b
Wouldvalue::a.b.call(0)
be somehow equivalent tovalue.call(0)
?::a.b.c
givesa.b.c.bind(a.b)
~~ more or less equivalent to(...args) => a.b.c(...args)
Would::a.b.call
give(...args) => a.b.call(...args)
?Or Syntax Errors ?