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walkccc / CLRS

📚 Solutions to Introduction to Algorithms Third Edition
https://walkccc.me/CLRS
MIT License
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It seems wrong of Problem 5-1.b #269

Open run27017 opened 4 years ago

run27017 commented 4 years ago

The correct answer seems to be 99n, not 0.99n.

yjian012 commented 3 years ago

I agree. "the variance of a binomial distribution" is when increment is 1, but if all values are multiplied by x, the variance will be multiplied by x^2, so it should be 100^2 np(1-p) which is 99n. It's easy to test it for small n like n=1.