Open GeneralPoxter opened 1 year ago
This should be disproven with counterexamples $1/n$ and $1/n^2$ (which does not fall into the case where $f(n)<1$ for all $n$).
This should be disproven with counterexamples $1/n$ and $1/n^2$ (which does not fall into the case where $f(n)<1$ for all $n$).