Open kennethnanwu opened 2 months ago
I am doing v2 migration, and discover that I can use the new (v2) app's client_id to request for an authorization code, and use this auth code to get an access token for the v1 app.
That is, in authorizeURL, I used the v2 app client id
authorizeURL({ state: "state", scope: "sites:read", clientId: "v2_app_client_id", redirctUri: "redirect_uri", });
and when the redirect_uri gets an access code, I use it with the v1 app's client id and client secret
const accessToken = WebflowClient.getAccessToken({ clientId: "v1_app_client_id", clientSecret: "v1_app_client_secret", code: "authorization_code" });
I expect this to fail, but I was able to get an access token successfully.
Is this intended, or is this a bug?
Thanks for the help in advance!
is it because the account I am using has granted access to the v1 app before?
I am doing v2 migration, and discover that I can use the new (v2) app's client_id to request for an authorization code, and use this auth code to get an access token for the v1 app.
That is, in authorizeURL, I used the v2 app client id
and when the redirect_uri gets an access code, I use it with the v1 app's client id and client secret
I expect this to fail, but I was able to get an access token successfully.
Is this intended, or is this a bug?
Thanks for the help in advance!