Closed hbellafkir closed 4 years ago
Ok lambda1 is set to be 0, which weights the pairwise loss. I was very upset before cause its not the first time, that I read a paper, but the code itself tells another story.
Ok lambda1 is set to be 0, which weights the pairwise loss. I was very upset before cause its not the first time, that I read a paper, but the code itself tells another story.
Do you know why the author uses pairwise loss?
They set lambda1 to be 0 for Training, so they doesn't use pairwise loss.
They set lambda1 to be 0 for Training, so they doesn't use pairwise loss.
Why is Q_loss completely different from LQ in the paper?
hi,
The paper doesn't use any pairwise loss. Is this a joke? why are you implementing something different that the paper's claim?
thanks in advance