Open mniederhuber opened 1 year ago
Hey! No, it's because there's variable coverage per arm. If you compute mean(coverage)
for: dm6
, [chrX, chr2, chr3, chr4]
, and [chrX, chr2L, chr2R, chr3R, chr3L, chr4]
you'll see high variance between each.
ah! good to know. Thank you!
Howdy! This has been bugging me. What's the logic to z-normalize by chromosome arm and not whole genome? Was that just because it's convenient to use seqnames which split by arm?